I’ll type the question in English too (it is a bit sad that I’m able to type this question better in English than my mother-tongue Hindi).
Total number of ‘Samay’ across past, present, future: K
Total number of ‘Jeev’: J
From what I know K is (inf) * (inf) times more than J (please correct me if I’m wrong). Because
Jeev is (inf). Pudgal is (inf) * (inf) ie infinite times more than Jeev. And K is infinite times the number of Pudgal (again, please correct me if I’m wrong).
If the above is true, then:
Total Samay in past, present, future: K
Every 6 months, 8 Samay, 608 Jeev attain Moksh.
So total Jeev which will attain Moksh: K * 608 / (total samay in 6 months 8 Samay = uncountable)
So total Jeev which will attain Moksh is still in the same order of infinity as K because it is being divided by uncountable (असंख्यात). But that is not true because the total number of Jeev (J) is two (inf) orders of magnitude lesser than K.
How’s that possible?
Other way to look at it is this:
Jeev (J) is two orders of (inf) magnitude less than K. If that is the case, and in every (uncountable) period of time a fixed number of Jeev are attaining Moksh, then J will at some point of time all attain Moksh because
J = (inf)
K = (inf) * (inf) * (inf)
And 608 comes in K / (total number of Samay in 6 months 8 samay = uncountable) which is still (inf) * (inf) * (inf) / (uncountable) = (inf) * (inf) * (inf).
I hope I’m making sense above.